NDA/NA (1) 2012 General Knowledge Questions

NDA Questions

1. The Indian Standard Time (IST) is based on

  1. 90° E meridian
  2. 82½° E meridian
  3. 75° E meridian
  4. 0° meridian
images/info/study/study05.jpg

2. Collision-coalescence process of precipitation is applicable to?

  1. those clouds which do not extend beyond the freezing level
  2. those clouds which extend beyond the freezing level
  3. all types of clouds
  4. cumulonimbus clouds

3. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists

List I (Map showing ocean current)

List II (Name of ocean current)

1. Kuroshio
2. Humboldt
3. Benguela
4. Oyashio

Code:

  1. A - 2; B - 1; C - 3; D - 4
  2. A - 4; B - 3; C - 2; D - 1
  3. A - 4; B - 1; C - 3; D - 2
  4. A - 2; B - 3; C - 1; D - 4

4. Which one among the following nutrients is a structural component of the cell wall of plants?

  1. Manganese
  2. Potassium
  3. Phosphorus
  4. Calcium

5. Balanced diet should have approximately

  1. 1/5 protein, 3/5 fat and 1/5 carbohydrate
  2. 3/5 protein, 1/5 fat and 1/5 carbohydrate
  3. 1/5 protein, 1/5 fat and 3/5 carbohydrate
  4. 1/2 protein, 1/4 fat and 1/4 carbohydrate

6. Which one among the following statements is correct?

  1. All arteries carry oxygenated blood
  2. All veins carry oxygenated blood
  3. Except the pulmonary artery, all other arteries carry oxygenated blood
  4. Except the pulmonary vein, all other veins carry oxygenated blood

7. What are cold-blooded animals?

  1. Animals with blood without haemoglobin
  2. Animals who are not ferocious
  3. Animals whose body temperature remains constant
  4. Animals whose body temperature varies according to the temperature of atmosphere

8. Sickle-cell anaemia is a disease caused due to the abnormality in?

  1. white blood cells
  2. red blood cells
  3. thrombocytes
  4. blood plasma composition

9. Carbohydrates are stored in plants and animals in the form of

  1. cellulose and glucose respectively
  2. starch and glycogen respectively
  3. starch and glucose respectively
  4. cellulose and glycogen respectively

10. Which of the following statements regarding oxidation and reduction are correct?

  1. In oxidation, loss of electron takes place whereas in reduction, gain of electron takes place
  2. In oxidation, gain of electron takes place whereas in reduction, loss of electron takes place
  3. Oxidising agent decreases the oxidation number but reducing agent increases the oxidation number
  4. Oxidising agent increases the oxidation number but reducing agent reduces the oxidation number

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

  1. 1 and 3
  2. 2 and 4
  3. 2 and 3
  4. 1 and 4

11. Which one among the following is correct regarding 20Ne, 23Na+, 19F- and 24Mg2+?

  1. They are isomers of each other
  2. They are isotopes of each other
  3. They are isoelectronic with each other
  4. All of the above

12. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

  1. Isotopes: Atoms with same atomic number but different atomic mass
  2. Isobars: Atoms with same number of neutrons but different atomic number
  3. Isotones: Atoms with same mass number but different atomic number

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 2 only

13. Sometimes, indigestion is caused by the secretion of too much hydrochloric acid in the stomach. To ease the pain caused, a tablet can be taken that reacts to reduce the amount of acid present. Which one among the following would be inappropriate for a manufacturer to include as a major reactant in the tablet?

  1. CaCO3
  2. MgCO3
  3. NaOH
  4. Mg(OH)2

14. Muhammad bin Tughlaq's experiment of introducing token currency could not succeed on account of

  1. rejection of token coins by foreign merchants
  2. shortage of copper for minting token coins
  3. large-scale minting of spurious coins
  4. poor quality of token currency

15. The Parliament can legislate on the subjects in the State List if the

  1. President issues an order authorising it do so
  2. Supreme Court gives authority to the Parliament in this regard
  3. Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by two-thirds of its members present and voting declaring it expedient to legislate on a State matter in the national interest
  4. Prime Minister issues a special order

16. The writ of certiorari is issued by superior court to

  1. an inferior court to stop further proceedings in a particular case
  2. an inferior court to transfer the record of proceedings in a case for review
  3. an officer to show his/her right to hold a particular office
  4. a public authority to produce a person detained by it before the court within 24 hours

17. Schemes run under the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act are sponsored

  1. by the Central Government alone
  2. partly by the Central Government and partly by the State Government
  3. by Centre, State and Panchayat bodies together
  4. on public-private partnership basis

18. The World Bank was created immediately after the Second World War. Its activities are focused on the developing countries. Which among the following are the activities of the Bank?

  1. Human development
  2. Agriculture and rural development
  3. Environmental protection and governance
  4. Loans and grants to the member countries

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 3 and 4 only
  3. 2 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

19. A refracting telescope consists of

  1. one concave mirror and one convex lens
  2. two convex lenses of equal focal length
  3. two concave mirrors of different focal lengths
  4. two convex lenses of unequal focal lengths

20. The nucleus of a singly ionized carbon atom contains

  1. 6 protons and 6 neutrons
  2. 5 protons and 6 neutrons
  3. 6 protons, 6 neutrons and 6 electrons
  4. 12 protons, 6 neutrons and 6 electrons

21. Two similarly charged bodies are kept 5 cm apart in air. If the second body is shifted away from the first by another 5 cm, their force of repulsion will be

  1. doubled
  2. halved
  3. quadrupled
  4. reduced to one-fourth

22. A glass of water does not turn into ice as it reaches 0° C. It is because

  1. water does not solidify at 0° C
  2. a certain amount of heat must be supplied to the glass of water so as to solidify
  3. a certain amount of heat must be taken out from the glass of water so as to solidify
  4. water solidifies at 0° K only

23. The main power supply in India is at 220 V, whereas that in the US is at 110 V. Which one among the following statements in this regard is correct?

  1. 110 V is safer but more expensive to maintain
  2. 110 V is safer and cheaper to maintain
  3. 110 V lead to lower power loss
  4. 110 V works better at higher latitudes

24. The equatorial rain forest is also known as

  1. Savanna
  2. Campos
  3. Selva
  4. Lanose

25. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists

List I (Port)

A. Kandla
B. Kochi
C. Vishakhapatnam
D. Kolkata

List II (Special feature)

1. Deepest land-locked protected port
2. Located at the mouth of lagoon
3. Tidal port
4. Inland riverine port

Code:

  1. A - 3; B - 1; C - 2; D - 4
  2. A - 3; B - 2; C - 1; D - 4
  3. A - 4; B - 1; C - 2; D - 3
  4. A - 4; B - 2; C - 1; D - 3

26. The Earth's surface receives maximum energy at 12 noon but the maximum temperature never occurs at 12 noon. State which of the following reasons are correct.

  1. Transformation of solar energy into heat requires some time.
  2. The loss of energy through long-wave radiations from the Earth's surface exceeds the energy received from the Sun at 4.00 p.m.
  3. Energy received by the Earth from solar radiations continues to exceed the energy lost by outgoing long-wave radiations from the Earth's surface up to 4.00 p.m.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2, and 3

27. Certain parts of a plant can be bent easily without breaking. This flexibility in certain parts, like leaf and stem, can attributed to the abundance of

  1. parenchyma
  2. collenchyma
  3. sclerenchyma
  4. xylem and phloem

28. Which of the following is not a micronutrient for a plant?

  1. Iron
  2. Magnesium
  3. Molybdenum
  4. Manganese

29. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Ligaments are highly flexible.
  2. Ligaments connect muscles and bones
  3. Ligaments contain very little matrix.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1 only

30. Cell membrane is selectively permeable because

  1. it is made up of selected organic molecules
  2. it does not allow transport of some substances from region of higher concentration to the region of lower concentration
  3. the movement of organic molecules occurs only at specific concentration
  4. it allows the movement of certain molecules in and out of the cell while the movement of other molecules is prevented

31. The following equation is an example of a redox reaction, in which Cl2 is the oxidizing agent and FeBr3 is the reducing agent:

2FeBr3(aq) + 3Cl2(g) = 2FeCl3(aq) + 3Br2(l)

Which one among the following statements if incorrect for this redox reaction?

  1. Oxidizing agents are themselves reduced
  2. Reducing agents gain or appear to gain electrons
  3. Reducing agents are themselves oxidized
  4. Oxidizing agents oxidize other substances

32. Which one among the following nitrogen compounds has the least percentage of nitrogen by mass

  1. (NH4)3PO4
  2. NH3
  3. NH4OH
  4. NH4NO3

33. Which one among the following is the correct order of amount of lime (CaO), silica (SiO2), alumina (Al2O3) and ferric oxide (Fe2O3) in Portland cement

  1. CaO > SiO2 > Al2O3 > Fe2O3
  2. SiO2 > CaO > Fe2O3 > Al2O3
  3. Al2O3 > SiO2 > CaO > Fe2O3
  4. Fe2O3 > Al2O3 > SiO2 > CaO

34. Which one among the following transitions of electron of hydrogen atom emits radiation of the shortest wavelength?

  1. n = 2 to n = 1
  2. n = 3 to n = 2
  3. n = 4 to n = 3
  4. n = 5 to n = 4

35. Which one among the following is the most appropriate statement with respect to the atomic weight of an element?

  1. The atomic weight of an element is the sum total of the number of protons and neutrons present in the atom of the element
  2. Unlike mass number, the atomic weight of an element can be a fraction
  3. The atomic weight of an element is a whole number
  4. The atomic weight of all the atoms in an element is the same

36. During the discussion on the Demands for Grants, motions can be moved to reduce the amount of a demand. Such a motion is called a 'cut-motion'. Which of the following categories are classified as 'cut-motion'?

  1. Disapproval of policy cut
  2. Economy cut
  3. Token cut

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3 only
  4. 1 and 3 only

37. Which of the statements given below is/are correct?

  1. The Speaker immediately vacates his/her office whenever the State Legislative Assembly is dissolved.
  2. No Member of a State Legislative Assembly shall be liable to any proceeding in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him/her in the legislature.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

38. Consider the following statements about Cripps Proposals of 1942:

  1. Provision was to be made for participation of Indian States in the Constitution-making body.
  2. British Government undertook to accept and implement the Constitution
  3. All provinces of British India were to give an undertaking about the acceptance of the Constitution.
  4. In the ongoing World War, no resources of British India would be used.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Code:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1, 2 and 4
  4. 1, 3 and 4

39. Which one among the following was NOT one of the causes of the Third Anglo-Maratha War?

  1. The Maratha Chiefs, particularly the Peshwa desired to throw off the restrictions imposed on them by the treaties with the English
  2. The determination of the English to give a finishing blow to the Maratha power
  3. The Pindari designs to seek support from the Marathas to drive the English away from India
  4. The attack of Peshwa Baji Rao on the residency at Khirki

40. William Bentinck attempted to reform Hindu society by suppressing/abolishing social evils. Which one among the following was not included in them?

  1. Sati
  2. Infanticide
  3. Thugi
  4. Slavery

41. Karam is a festival celebrated to worship Karam Devta, the God of power. Which one among the following tribal communities in India traditionally celebrates this festival?

  1. Santhals
  2. Karbi
  3. Meenas
  4. Bhils

42. The terra-cotta plough of the Harappan civilization was found at

  1. Mohenjo-daro
  2. Banawali
  3. Kalibangan
  4. Lothal

43. Which one among the following works of Mahatma Gandhi provides a critique of modern machine-oriented civilization?

  1. The Story of My Experiments with Truth
  2. Hind Swaraj
  3. Constructive Programme
  4. Anasakti Yoga (Commentary on 'Gita')

44. An object is in uniform circular motion on a plane. Suppose that you measure its displacement from the centre along one direction, say, along the x-axis. Which one among the following graphs could represent this displacement (x)?

45. The penetrating power of X-rays can be increased by

  1. increasing the current in the filament
  2. decreasing the potential difference between the cathode and the anode
  3. decreasing the current in the filament
  4. increasing the potential difference between the cathode and the anode

46. The graph given above indicates change in temperature (θ) when heat (Q) was given to a substance. Which among the following parts of the graph correctly depict the latent heat of the substance?

  1. AB and BC
  2. BC and DE
  3. CD and DE
  4. DE and AB

47. When a solid object is immersed in water, there is a loss in its weight. This loss is

  1. equal to the weight of the water displaced
  2. less than the weight of the water displaced
  3. greater than the weight of the water displaced
  4. not related to the weight of the water displaced

48. Body A of mass 2 kg and another body B of mass 4 kg and of same material are kept in the same sunshine for some interval of time. If the rise in temperature is equal for both the bodies, then which one among the following in this regard is correct?

  1. Heat absorbed by B is double because its mass is double
  2. Heat absorbed by A is double because its mass is half
  3. Heat absorbed by both A and B is equal because the quantity of heat absorbed does not depend upon mass
  4. Heat absorbed by B is four times than the heat absorbed by A because the quantity of heat absorbed is proportional to the square of the mass

49. For a steel boat floating on a lake, the weight of the water displaced by the boat is

  1. less than the weight of the boat
  2. more than the weight of the boat
  3. equal to the weight of the part of the boat which is below the water level of the lake
  4. equal to the weight of the boat

50. Consider the following coal mines of India

  1. Bokaro
  2. Adilabad
  3. Ranigunj
  4. Bishrampur

Select the correct sequence of the above from east to west

Code:

  1. 1-3-4-2
  2. 3-1-4-2
  3. 3-1-2-4
  4. 1-3-2-4

51. Which one among the following agricultural crops/groups of crops may be grown in abundant in lowlands and river deltas of fertile alluvial soil where there is high summer temperature and rainfall varies from 180 cm to 250 cm?

  1. Wheat and sugarcane
  2. Cotton
  3. Maize and coarse crops
  4. Rice, jute and tea

52. Arrange the following tropical forest groups in the correct order of sequence based on area covered in India beginning from the largest covered area

  1. Moist deciduous
  2. Dry deciduous
  3. Wet evergreen
  4. Semi-evergreen

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Code:

  1. 1-2-3-4
  2. 3-4-2-1
  3. 1-3-2-4
  4. 4-3-2-1

53. Which one among the following is the major reason for low agricultural productivity in dry regions of India?

  1. Constraints of financial resources
  2. Rural indebtedness
  3. Dependence on erratic monsoon
  4. Small size of landholdings

54. Which one among the following groups is referred to as types of precipitation?

  1. Fog, Dew and Rain
  2. Air, Water and Soil
  3. Fog, Water and Rain
  4. Dew, Soil and Rain

55. Which one among the following is the most important source of fish catch in India?

  1. Deep-sea fisheries
  2. Coastal fisheries
  3. Inland natural fisheries
  4. Inland cultural fisheries

56. In which one among the following areas of South-East Asia, there is largest concentration of peasant population?

  1. Areas of intensive shifting cultivation
  2. Highland areas where the climate is cooler and healthier
  3. Cleared lowlands in forest areas
  4. Areas where the grain farming is practised

57. The largest number of temperate cyclones originate mostly over the

  1. Indian Ocean
  2. North Atlantic Ocean
  3. North Pacific Ocean
  4. Arctic Ocean

58. Which one among the following statements is NOT correct?

  1. More than 50% of world's animal species are found in tropical rain forest
  2. One-third of land surface is arid or semi-arid
  3. Floating plants (phytoplankton) in the ocean produce over half the world's oxygen
  4. World's important deserts are located across the equator

59. Which one among the following statements regarding Chinook winds is not correct?

  1. They rise from the Pacific Ocean
  2. After crossing the Rockies, they descend to the east of the mountains
  3. They bring rainfall in the Prairies
  4. These winds are beneficial to wheat cultivation

60. Consider the following statements relating to planning in India:

  1. In the year 1938, the National Planning Committee was set up in India under the chairmanship of Jawaharlal Nehru.
  2. The Bombay Plan was prepared by the India industrialists.
  3. Acharya Kripalini prepared the Gandhian Plan

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Code:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

61. Which one among the following statements regarding the Government of India Act, 1935 is NOT correct?

  1. Provincial Autonomy came into existence
  2. Bicameral legislature were provided in six provinces
  3. The principles of communal electorates and weightage were further extended
  4. The States were compelled to enter the Federation

62. Consider the following statements relating to Jain literature:

  1. The sacred books of the Jainas are known as Siddhanta or Agama.
  2. The language of the earliest Jain texts is eastern dialect of Pali known as Ardha Magadhi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Code:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

63. Which one among the following was a newspaper founded and edited by Raja Rammohan Roy?

  1. The Calcutta Gazette
  2. Mirat-ul Akhbar
  3. Harijan
  4. The Bharat Mihir

64. Which one among the following is not produced by sound waves in air?

  1. Polarization
  2. Diffraction
  3. Reflection
  4. Refraction

65. A body attached to a spring balance weighs 10 kg on the Earth. The body attached to the same spring balance is taken to a planet where gravity is half that of the Earth. The balance will read

  1. 20 kg
  2. 10 kg
  3. 5 kg
  4. 2.5 kg

66. The resistance of a wire is 10 Ω. If it is stretched ten times, the resistance will be

  1. 1 Ω
  2. 10 Ω
  3. 100 Ω
  4. 1000 Ω

67. If the focal length of the biconvex lens is 25 cms, then the power of the lens will be

  1. +4 dioptre
  2. -4 dioptre
  3. +0.04 dioptre
  4. -0.04 dioptre

68. The thermal conductivity of copper is 4 items that of brass. Two rods of copper and brass having same length and cross-section are joined end to end. The free end of copper is at 0o C and the free end of brass is at 100o C. The temperature of the junction is

  1. 20° C
  2. 40° C
  3. 60° C
  4. 10° C

69. The torque on a rectangular coil placed in a uniform magnetic field is large when the

  1. number of turns is large
  2. number of turns is less
  3. plane of the coil is perpendicular to the magnetic field
  4. area of the coil is small

70. Two metallic wires A and B are of same material and have equal length. If the cross-sectional area of B is double that of A, then which one among the following is the electrical resistance of B?

  1. Twice that of A
  2. 4 times that of A
  3. 1/4 that of A
  4. 1/2 that of A

71. Two thin convex lenses of focal lengths 4 cm and 8 cm are separated by a distance of 4 cm in air. The combination will have the focal length

  1. 4 cm
  2. 8 cm
  3. 12 cm
  4. 32 cm

72. The Damuda series of Gondwana system has three stages, namely, Raniganj, Barren Rocks and Barakar. The middle stage is called Barren because

  1. it consists of coal and not iron
  2. it consists of iron and not coal
  3. it consists of neither coal nor iron
  4. it is sedimentary layer consisting of shale and clay

73. The cyclonic storm occurring over the Caribbean Sea is known as

  1. Typhoon
  2. Willy-Willy
  3. Hurricane
  4. Cyclone

74. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists

List I (Mountain Pass)

A. Zoji La
B. Lipulekh
C. Shipki La
D. Nathu La

List II (State)

1. Himachal Pradesh
2. Sikkim
3. Uttarakhand
4. Jammu and Kashmir

Code:

  1. A - 2; B - 1; C - 3; D - 4
  2. A - 2; B - 3; C - 1; D - 4
  3. A - 4; B - 1; C - 3; D - 2
  4. A - 4; B - 3; C - 1; D - 2

75. Where do you find the Isle of Youth?

  1. Near Cuba
  2. Near Bahamas
  3. Near Jamaica
  4. Near Saint Lucia

76. For which among the following house appliances, magnet is an essential part?

  1. Calling bell
  2. Fan
  3. Washing machine
  4. All of the above

77. Consider the following statements :

Hypermetropia is a defect of vision in which

  1. a person cannot see the distant objects clearly
  2. a person cannot see the near objects clearly
  3. the near point of the eye gets shifted away from the normal position
  4. the far point of the eye gets shifted towards the eye

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Code:

  1. 1 and 3
  2. 2 and 4
  3. 1 and 4
  4. 2 and 3

78. To obtain the powerful parallel beams of light from a vehicle's headlight, one must use

  1. front surface silvered plane mirror
  2. back surface silvered plane mirror
  3. concave mirror
  4. convex mirror

79. Which among the following is the major constituent of soda lime glass?

  1. Sodium oxide
  2. Calcium oxide
  3. Calcium carbonate
  4. Silica

80. Which among the following about Mahatma Gandhi's Non-Cooperation Movement are correct?

  1. Refusal to attend Government Durbars and official functions
  2. Participation in elections
  3. Participation in rallies for the boycott of foreign goods
  4. Surrender of titles

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 3 and 4
  3. 2, 3 and 4
  4. 1 and 4 only

81. Gandhiji's call for breaking Salt Laws was in response to the

  1. Non-Cooperation Movement
  2. Civil Disobedience Movement
  3. Khilafat Movement
  4. Quit India Movement

82. The Suez Canal, the Strait of Hormuz and the Strait of Gibraltar are important because they

  1. prevent attacks on bordering nations
  2. prohibit the movement of ships carrying nuclear weapons
  3. unite Russian access to warm water points
  4. control access to vital trade routes

83. Which one among the following is the largest exporter of small arms in the world?

  1. Russia
  2. The United States
  3. China
  4. France

84. Which among the following islands in the South China Sea are the source of conflict between several countries?

  1. Marshall Islands
  2. Solomon Islands
  3. Kuril Islands
  4. Spratly Islands

85. In recent past, the Indian Navy has deployed its fleet ships to patrol near the Gulf of Aden to

  1. show off its naval might to neighbouring countries
  2. indicate dominant intentions in the Indian Ocean region
  3. carry out anti-piracy role
  4. exercise operational readiness in international water

86. The only operational Naval Base exclusively controlled by the Indian Navy is located at

  1. Puducherry
  2. Okha
  3. Karwar
  4. Kakinada

87. Who among the following led India to their first overseas test victory in cricket?

  1. C.K. Nayudu
  2. M.A.K. Pataudi
  3. Sunil Gavaskar
  4. Bishen Singh Bedi

88. Who among the following was conferred the highest Bangladesh award - the Bangladesh Swadhinata Sammanona in the year 2011?

  1. Indira Gandhi
  2. Rajiv Gandhi
  3. Jyoti Basu
  4. Satyajit Ray

89. Dhanush, a missile inducted into the Indian Navy

  1. is a customized and naval variant of Prithvi missile
  2. has a range of 700 km
  3. can be launched from an aircraft
  4. cannot carry nuclear warheads

90. India commissioned its first indigenously built stealth warship INS Shivalik and inducted into the Indian Navy recently, thus joining the elite group of countries capable of constructing such vessels. Which among the following other countries are in the elite group?

  1. Russia
  2. The United States
  3. Germany
  4. The United Kingdom

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 2 and 4 only
  4. 1 and 3 only

91. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. The Indian Army is organized into five Regional Commands
  2. The Headquarters of Northern Command is located at Lucknow

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answers

  1. B
  2. A
  3. D
  4. D
  5. C
  6. C
  7. D
  8. B
  9. B
  10. A
  11. C
  12. B
  13. C
  14. C
  15. C
  16. B
  17. B
  18. D
  19. D
  20. A
  21. D
  22. C
  23. A
  24. C
  25. B
  26. C
  27. B
  28. B
  29. B
  30. B
  31. B
  32. A
  33. A
  34. A
  35. B
  36. C
  37. B
  38. A
  39. C
  40. D
  41. A
  42. B
  43. B
  44. A
  45. D
  46. B
  47. A
  48. A
  49. B
  50. B
  51. D
  52. A
  53. C
  54. A
  55. D
  56. D
  57. B
  58. D
  59. D
  60. C
  61. D
  62. C
  63. B
  64. A
  65. C
  66. D
  67. A
  68. A
  69. A
  70. D
  71. A
  72. D
  73. C
  74. D
  75. A
  76. D
  77. D
  78. C
  79. D
  80. B
  81. B
  82. D
  83. B
  84. D
  85. C
  86. C
  87. B
  88. A
  89. A
  90. B
  91. A